Which finding should the nurse expect the patient to have first? A physical examination confirmed the increased weakness and numbness, with no specific mus- cle tenderness. The nurse identifies what as the most common toxic effect of vancomycin therapy? Disulfiram reaction (DO NOT DRINK ALCOHOL), Bacteriostatic prevents additional growth of bacteria whereas bacteriocidal kills bacteria. A nurse observes a red streak and palpates the vein as hard and cordlike at the intravenous (IV) site of a patient receiving cefepime [Maxipime]. Which assessment should the nurse monitor as an indicator of an undesired effect? With Support From. Antibiotics Treat bacterial infections -Ideally before beginning antibiotic therapy the suspected area of infection should be cultured to identify the causative organism and potential antibiotic susceptibilities Empiric Therapy Treatment of an infection before specific culture informaiton has been reported or obtained Definitive Therapy Cell Wall Synthesis Inhibitors A patient who is receiving vancomycin [Vancocin] IV for a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection asks a nurse, "Why can't I take this medicine in a pill?" Do not inject more than 10mL at once IM. (Select all that apply. He has a temperature of 102 F, oxygen saturation level of 95%, and is taking fluids adequately. C. Nephrotoxicity. The I.V. You are treating an 18-month-old child who is being treated with amoxicillin 80 mg/kg/day for treatment of left otitis media. (Select all that apply.). Which action should the nurse take first? Cefepime is a fourth-generation cephalosporin and only available IV, so would not be prescribed in primary care. Welcome to your first set of nursing pharmacology practice questions. B. C. diff diarrhea. Wayne is a 4-year-old patient who has suspected bacterial pneumonia. MOA: Inhibits 50S ribosomal subunit inhibitor. The FNP educates the patient that it is important to avoid using which of the following over the counter medications during therapy? A nurse monitors a patient who is receiving an aminoglycoside (gentamicin) for symptoms of vestibular damage. 3) The use of high-dose opioid analgesics to relieve pain in the final stages of cancer. Which medication(s) would he likely have a cross sensitivity to? 3. Avoid IV administeration. Which laboratory result should a nurse monitor more frequently when a patient is receiving clarithromycin [Biaxin] and warfarin [Coumadin]? Patients with frequent urinary tract reinfections should be put on what type of therapy? "It is more effective by IV, because the pill form will stay in the digestive tract.". After witnessing the diabetes pharmacology nclex questions quizlet excessive integration of hemoglobin a1c 5.1 means American universities and society, American diabetes medications in police cars scholar Bloom lamented Universities must resist the tendency how can you prevent type 2 diabetes to serve society in everything. Which condition results from over secretion of growth hormone? Active against gram-positive cocci bacteria such as group a streptococcus and streptococcus aureus. True B. a) Erythromycin, Chloramphenicol b) Vancomycin, Cephamycin c) Gentamicin, Tetracycline d) Options a and c e) Options b and c 12) Ototoxicity, vestibulo-toxic impairment, and nephrotoxicity are seen as major adverse effects of a) Aminoglycosides b) Macrolides What does the nurse identify as an adverse effect of clindamycin [Cleocin] therapy? Covered in asynchronous material, Penicillin Adverse Effects slide. Both IV ampicillin/sulbactam [Unasyn] and gentamicin are ordered for a patient. Feedback will be provided for each response. What reaction is Jamie experiencing? (Mechanical valve, unable to repair) or with hex of unprovoked endocarditis. Candida infections of mouth or vagina Treat Anaphylaxis with what medications? The risk of ototoxicity with aminoglycoside use is related primarily to excessive trough levels. The nurse identifies which medication as the drug of choice for most infections caused by herpes simplex viruses and varicella-zoster virus? Which finding should a nurse associate most clearly with an adverse effect of gentamicin? ***Did you know only 20% of our video content is on YouTube? A client is prescribed propranolol for a diagnosis of essential tremors. A patient who is receiving an aminoglycoside (gentamicin) has a urinalysis result with all of these findings. A nurse should teach a patient who has Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) about the dosing and therapeutic effects of which medication? Oral can be fatal in horses. Which action should a nurse take? Comprehensive Nursing Pharmacology NCLEX Practice | Quiz #1: 50 Questions 1. 1) Administration of vasopressors to maintain blood pressure and cardiac output after open heart surgery. Pharmacology is pretty much the study of the action of drugs. Diarrhea is a common side effect. What Are Antibiotics? -semisynthetic antibiotics -structurally and pharmacologically related to penicillins Uses of Cephalosporins - good gram (+) coverage, bad gram (-) coverage - prevent infections (ear infections, meningitis, pseudomonas, MRSA) Sets with similar terms Pharm test 3 - Antibiotics part 1 Mel_Mattson Drugs for Infectious Diseases Michalyn_Worthy People usually remain healthy and resistant to microorganisms due to the due to the presence of host defenses. Pharmacology Final exam quizlet - NSG 6005. A nurse should recognize that which laboratory result is used as a major factor in deciding when antiretroviral therapy is indicated for a patient infected with HIV? If allergic to penicillin what would you prescribe? Quiz 1 Quiz 2 Quiz 3 Quiz 4 Quiz 5 30 Questions! (Peds), Treatment for Rocky Mountain spotted fever, Bacteriostatic, Inhibits proteins synthesis, Pregnant - do not use unless "death or doxycycline", Bacteriostatic - Interferes with folic acid synthesis, Inhibits protein synthesis, aerobic metabolism, DNA and RNA synthesis and cell wall synthesis, Long term - May cause peripheral neuropathy, pulmonary fibrosis, Bacteriocidal - interferes with enzyme DNA gyrase which is needed to synthesize bacterial DNA, -TENDON RUPTURE (build up over time - usually older adult and <18, Peds - only for complicated UTI, pyelonephritis, and anthrax exposure (risk vs benefit teaching). Better protection against enterobacteria and Graham negative bacteria. Drugs classified as high alert drugs include potassium, narcotics (opioids), insulin, cancer chemotherapy drugs, and heparin (or any drug that . ), Women who will be pregnant during flu season. No treatment is required if there is no residual cardiac defect. Which of the following is appropriate education when discussing administration of oral antibiotics to an infant? Labs drawn showed a creatine kinase (CK) of 22,188, an elevated myoglobin, aspartate transferase (AST) 750, and alanine transferase (ALT) 449. Gram-positive bacteria easier to treat due to robust cell wall, so more susceptible to anabiotic therapy, Natural penicillin is gram-positive only while aminopenicillins such as amoxicillin provide some Gram negative support, What bacteria causes a rapid strep test to be positive, 1 - natural penicillin (only treats gram +), -Increases likelihood of fungal infections, Bacteriocidal, inhibits synthesis of cell wall, Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea. Fluoroquinolones. When taking the patient's history, a nurse recognizes which information as the most important? Augmentin - how is it different from amoxicillin? How are glucocorticoids useful in asthma? Which of the following agents should not be given to children under the age of eight due to its deposition and bone and teeth? Cephalosporins The nurse knows that there is an increased risk of ototoxicity in a patient receiving an aminoglycoside if which level is high? The role of the beta-lactamase inhibitor is to prevent the breakdown of the beta-lactam by organisms that produce the enzyme, thereby providing a wider spectrum of antibacterial activity. top 200 drugs. Nicole has been prescribed doxycycline for treatment of Lyme Disease. Which cardiovascular finding does the nurse identify as a possible adverse effect of erythromycin [Ery-Tab] therapy? Try out our membership for FREE . Augmentin can cause more GI issues than amoxicillin? . Joanna had a small ventricle septal defect (VSD) repaired when she was 3 years old and has no residual cardiac problems. Her parents call the clinic and say she has developed diarrhea. They are complaining of diarrhea that began after they drank a soda with ice cubes a restaurant the night before they boarded their flight home. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes. was complaining of an increased general weakness. Antibiotics will help you get better from a cold or the flu. gram (+), gram (-), sinus infection, UTI, MRSA, PJP pneumonia, outpatient staph, - Bacteriostatic (inhibit growth of susceptible bacteria, rather than killing them immediately, will eventually lead to bacterial death), photosensitivity, Stevens-Johnsons Syndrome, anemia, crystalluria, Blood Dyscrasia, Natural penicillins, Penicillinase-resistant penicillins, Aminopenicillins, and Extended-specturm penicillins, bactericidal (kill bacteria), enter via cell wall, binds to penicillin-binding protein, cell wall is disrupted, kill normal flora, bacterial cell lysis (dies), Anaphylaxis, abdominal pain, itching, rash, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, - take oral doses with water (NOT juices) as acidic fluids may nullify drug actions, - good gram (+) coverage, bad gram (-) coverage, bactericidal, broad coverage, parenteral forms, PO, itchy edematis rash, pruritus, redness, edema, cross-sensitivity possible with penicillins, -Assess for penicillin allergy, may have cross allergy, Cefaclor (ceclor): PO, Cefuroxime (Zinacef) --> parenteral form is Ceftin: PO, Ex. Defenses are: 1. Rash is pruritic not urticaria and wheal shaped. The nurse should monitor for which symptoms, which could indicate a vitamin B6 deficiency caused by the medication? Diagnose and Treat Infection Effectively 3. Hold the infant upright to prevent aspiration. Drug Classes The CDC's campaign to prevent the development of antimicrobial resistance in hospitals focuses on what four approaches? The FNP advises the patient and parent that this is a viral Upper Respiratory Infection. What are 2 contraindications for insulin. They were replaced by newer, less-toxic drugs in treating less serious infections because these drugs have potentially serious adverse effects. The development of a new infection as a result of the elimination of normal flora by an antibiotic is referred to as what? Your patient, George, has been diagnosed with prolonged QT interval. A. Panhypopituitarism B. Addison's C. Acromegaly D. Diabetes 2. A patient who is receiving ceftriaxone has all of these medications ordered. D. Hepatotoxicity. You prescribe penicillin. Less effective against gram-positive infections as compared to first generation cephalosporins. Zachary is a 4-month-old patient with otitis media. True or false, True. Questions and Answers 1. Beta-lactam antibiotics are used in the management and treatment of bacterial infections. Considered as "broad spectrum" antibiotics. Prevention and treatment of infections caused by susceptible bacteria: Allergic reactions: urticaria, pruritus, angioedema, Inhibit action of enzyme produced by bacteria which is normally inactivate the antibiotic, Prevent protein synethesis within bacterial cells, NO children under 8, pregnant women, or breast feeding, Wide Spectrum = Gram -/+, protozoa, mycoplasma, Rickettsia, chlamydia, syphilis, lyme disease, acne, Assess drug allergies, renal, liver, and cardiac fun, Take oral doses with H20 not juices (acidic) may nullify drug antibacterial action, High protein bound and will cause severe interactions with other protein bound drugs, Avoid Ca++ products, iron preparations, antacid b/c of chelation and drug binding, Improvement of signs and symptoms of infection, Lowest concetration of the medication in patients bloodstream that will be effective, after miceation is stop it continues to suppress the bacteria that is left, Org resistant to one or more classes of antimicrobial drugs, Kill Gram - EX: Pseudomonas, E.coli, Proteus, Klebsiella, and Serratia, Vancomycin- resistant Enterococcus faceium (VREF), Julie S Snyder, Linda Lilley, Shelly Collins. by Schaef-n-bake11, Dec. 2010. The correct answer is: Cefdinir (Omnicef) The patient takes antacids on a daily basis. James is 55 years old and has an allergy to sulfonamide antibiotics. Ceftriaxone is the drug of choice for gonorrhea rather than a first or second generation cephalosporin because, B Ceftriaxone has a half-life of about eight hours making it effective as a single dose, Which statement about vancomycin is accurate, A Active against methicillin resistant staphylococci, Bacteriocidal that inhibit cell wall synthesis, Similar to penicillin. Her current weight is 24.2 pounds. False. 1. Beta Lactamase inhibitors are used for lower respiratory infections. Both come back positive. The CDC's campaign to prevent the development of antimicrobial resistance in hospitals focuses on what four approaches? -Red man syndrome that is caused by IV administration that is too fast. B. Imipenem. Cefaclor (Ceclor) b. Cephalexin (Keflex) c. Cefdinir (Omnicef) d. Cefadroxil (Duricef) Third- and fourth-generation cephalosporins penetrate the CSF. Show all questions 1 / 18 While beta-lactam antibiotics remain one of the most commonly prescribed types of antibiotics, they have side effects that can range from mild to life-threatening in nature. Levofloxacin is a quinolone and should not be administered to a patient of this age. Do not give (at all) to horses. Prescribing the antibiotic based on knowledge of the most likely organism. Popular Pharmacology sets. This is especially important when recent dose of amoxicillin was administered. This activity will highlight the mechanism of action, adverse event profile, and other key factors (e.g., off-label uses, dosing, pharmacodynamics, pharmacokinetics, monitoring, relevant interactions) pertinent for members of an interprofessional healthcare team in the treatment of patients. -Do not drink a glass of milk 1 hour before or 2 hours after, Julie S Snyder, Linda Lilley, Shelly Collins. Acqiured by person who has not been hospitalized or had a medical procedure (dialysis, surgery, catheter) wihtin past yr, Contracted in hospital or institutional setting, Health Care-Associated Infection: Prevention, Treatment of an infection before specific culture informaiton has been reported or obtained, Antibiotic therapy tailored to treat organism identified with cultures, Treatment with antibiotics to prevent infection, as in intra-abdominal surgery or after trauma, Decrease in specific signs and symptoms of infection are noted (fever, elevated WBC, etc. At how many drops per minute will the Lactated Ringers infuse? Before administering trimethoprim, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for a history of what? Anaphylactic reaction (swelling of the airway, wheezing, difficulty breathing rash, hives) 4. A nurse administering flu vaccines at an annual clinic should recognize that which individuals should be vaccinated, as recommended by the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP)? Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin. A nurse develops a plan of care for a patient who has an outbreak of recurrent genital herpes and is taking oral acyclovir [Zovirax]. Subjects: nclex pharmacology . Which instruction should a nurse include in the discharge teaching for a patient who is to start taking tetracycline? The FDA issued a warning restricting the use of fluoroquinolones for uncomplicated infections due to the side effects. Bacteriocidal. What considerations are needed when selecting an antibiotic? Which of the following is the most likely reason for A.P. Cephalosporins have a structure similar to penicillin, have a broad spectrum of activity, and have less allergic reactions than PCN. True B. Ensure that separate IV solutions are used. Page 60 in text. How should his medical chart be labeled and communicated to his parents? Doxycycline should not be taken at the same time as dairy product due to alterations in absorption. Pharmacology Antibiotics. According to Lexicomp this is first line. When administering these medications, the nurse will do what? From asynchronous material. False. Polly is a 12-month-old child who is being treated with amoxicillin for acute otitis media. top 200 drugs for 2009 with classification, route, and use # 1 Pikes PeakCC 1st50 Top 200 drug. You perform a rapid strep and a mono spot in the office. Using Antibiotics; Antibiotics Quiz; Antibiotics FAQ; Antibiotic Resistance. A. Piperacillin. An immunocompromised patient who is receiving piperacillin/tazobactam [Zosyn] develops oozing and bleeding from the gums. As a conscientious prescriber, which of the following is the most appropriate use of a fluoroquinolone? Back To Top. Probiotics can help to restore the normal GI flora and decrease the incidence of diarrhea. A. urinary tract infections 1. most uropathogens are resistant to sulfonamides alone 2. sulfamethoxazole combined with trimethoprim is effective B. nocardiosis 1. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is drug of choice 2. sulfisoxazole and sulfadiazine are also effective C. toxoplasmosis - pyrimethamine plus sulfadiazine VI. Pharmacology Final Study Guide Chapter 01: Drug Regulation, Actions, and Responses Workman & LaCharity: . Prophylactic therapy for at least 6 months. The FNP should instruct the patient taking any tetracycline to avoid products containing calcium, magnesium, or aluminum because the tetracycline will bind to the metallic ion which will reduce the therapeutic effectiveness of the antibiotic. Prevent Infection 2. This module deals with (1) the birth and development of our antibiotic arsenal, (2) some basic concepts on how antibiotic/antimicrobial drugs work, how they are processed in animal patients, and how they are used in veterinary practice, and (3) how these important drugs should be best prescribed so as to reduce the incidence of drug resistance. Jamie is a heavy heroin user. What statements are true regarding ototoxicity and aminoglycosides? A: Diarrhea, skin reactions in pigs. B. Cromolyn drops are instilled once a day to prevent allergy symptoms. Therapeutic Action The desired and beneficial action of aminoglycosides is: Table of contents. More than half of all antibiotics prescribed for ARIs are unnecessary These infections are most likely viral Which are examples of the improper use of antibiotic therapy? This is the gold standard of antibiotic use. We have put together pharmacology MCQ online quizzes to test your understanding of the must-know facts to know for your next exam. Antibiotic Cheat Sheet, Pharmacology Notes, Pharmacology for Nursing, Pharmacy School Notes, Pharmacology Study Guides, Cheat Sheet $12.00 Add to cart Highlights Digital download Digital file type (s): 1 PDF Description I am a pharmacy student and here are my detailed pharmacology study guides! Cefaclor is second generation, Cephalexin is first generation, Cefdinir is third generation, and Cefadroxil is first generation. A.P., a 52-year-old male, was started on erythromycin base 250 mg every 6 hours for a "chest infection." The nurse identifies this type of infection as what? Bactrim is pregnancy category D. It affects folic acid synthesis, which increases the risk of hemolytic anemia. No antibiotic is indicated for a viral infection. Anaphylaxis is a severe reaction and all PCN products should be avoided in the future. Which response should a nurse expect if the medication is achieving the desired effect? Pharm Test 3 Studyguide; Respiratory and Psychiatric Drugs Pharm Test 2; NUR218 Exam 3 - Lecture notes and . Side effects of penicillin 1. The nurse notices tan lines around the arms of a female patient who is taking levofloxacin [Levaquin]. a) The faculty member asks the student nurse to explain how an antibiotic is selected for use in a particular clinical situation. b. Bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal unit. FILL IN THE BLANKSBACILLI ARE WHAT SHAPE 2. Antibiotics 1. (Select all that apply.). Urinary tract infections in young women is an uncomplicated infection URI should not be treated with antibiotics and the indication for skin and soft tissue infections for quinolones is not established. Clavulanic, Tazobactam, Sulbactam Name the 3 chemicals used with penicillins as a beta-lactamase inhibitor? Parents should be educated on how to administer the medication with a syringe. A patient has acquired an infection while in the hospital. The clavulanate acid causes more GI upset. What request made by the nurse while assessing the client demonstrates an understanding of the proper evaluation of this medication therapy? Advise the patient to avoid sun exposure and wear sun screen when outside. Taking pharmacology quizzes is the best way to test your knowledge of drugs and medicines. HESI Pharmacology Exam Practice. The ED physician indicates that he experienced a severe allergic reaction to the amoxicillin. See page 118, Table 8.5. Cefaclor is second generation, Cephalexin is first generation, Cefdinir is third generation, and Cefadroxil is first generation. "A harmless side effect will be a red-orange discoloration of body fluids.". The nurse identifies which medication as posing a significant risk of causing confusion, somnolence, psychosis, and visual disturbances in elderly patients? The nurse identifies this type of infection as what? Which approach should a nurse take to administer intravenous (IV) acyclovir [Zovirax] to an immunocompromised patient? Which of the following oral antimicrobials should be avoided in the third trimester of pregnancy (due to an increased risk of kernicterus in the newborn)? 1st destroyed by beta-lactamase, not all destroyed, and increasingly resistant to beta-lactamase. what is the Brand names for Cephalosporins. You diagnose a urinary tract infection. Page 130 in text. There are also different prescribed drugs, and this quiz will test how well you know them and their effect. Which of the following medications should be avoided? The nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving a sulfonamide for treatment of a urinary tract infection. Physiologic - Gastric acid, antibodies 3. Pharmacology Test 2 Notes - Bacteria, Anti-infectives, Antibiotics pharm test other beyond pcn and cephalosporins powerpoint macrolides ees (erythromycin) can . Antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis, Destroy bacteria by weakening bacterial cell wall, prevention and treatment of gram (+) bacterial infections: enterococcus, streptococcus, and staphylococcus bacteria, If in same solution of aminoglycoside> inactivates aminoglycoside, Cephalosporins second generation examples, Cephalosporins fourth generation examples, bactericidal w/high therapeutic index that treat urinary tract infections, post op infections, pelvic infections and meningitis, do not give to clients w/history of severe allergic reactions to penicillins, disulfiram reaction (intolerance to alcohol) occurs w/simultaneous use of alcohol and drug, complete entire course of therapy even if symptoms resolve. We can now buy azithromycin online through online drug stores. A patient who has tuberculosis is treated with isoniazid. Which response should the nurse make? ADVERTISEMENTS 1. Kelsey, a 22 year old, came to your office with complaints of a gray, foul-smelling vaginal discharge which she notes is worse after intercourse. Lara is 34-weeks pregnant and comes into the office complaining of frequency and burning with urination. Most cases (more than 80%) of uncomplicated, community-acquired urinary tract infection (UTI) are caused by which bacteria? Renal function, however, was normal. Pharmacology Chapter 9, Antibiotics 1. Recently, Jamie has stopped using drugs and is experiencing body aches, mood swings, depression, tremors, sweating, and fatigue. Macrobid is category B. Keflex is category B. Augmentin is category B. Ceftriazone (rocephin): IV and IM --> has long half-life, once a day dose, elimination is primarily hepatic; easily pass meninges and diffuse into CSF to treat CNS infections, Bone, joint, skin, and soft tissue infections, - broadest antibacterial action of any antibiotic, Strep, 2nd choice for sinus infection, syphillis and lyme disease, gonorrhea, chlamydia, and mycoplasma, bacteriostatic, but at high does can be bactericidal, GI effects, hepatotoxicity flatulence, jaundice, and anorexia (Longer QT --> higher risk for cardiac arrest/ death (bradykinin), -Highly protein-bound and will cause sever interactions with other protein binding drugs, Approved: mycobacterium arium - intracellular complex infection (opportunistic infection associated with HIV/AIDS), Approved: recently with omeprazole to treat ulcer disease associated with helicobacter pylori infection, GI effects, nausea, vomitting, diarrhea, hepatotoxicity, jaundice, flatulence, anorexia, Gram (+), gram (-), protozoa, mycoplasma, rickettsia, chlamydia, syphillis, lyme disease, and acne, Bacteriostatic; inhibit protein synthesis, bind to Ca, Mg, Al ions and iron salts reduce oral absorption, -high affinity for calcium, tooth discoloration in children and fetus; or nursing mothers, -Avoid milk products, iron, antacids, and other dairy because chelation and drug binding that occurs, kills most gram (-), some gram (+), pseudomonas, E.coli, proteus, Klebsiella, serratia, combines with other antibiotics for synergistic effects, bactericidal: prevents protein synthesis, produced from Streptomycin, poor oral absorption, very potent with antibiotics, nephrotoxicity (renal damage), ototoxicity (auditory impairment), parathesia, superinfections, vertigo, skin rash, mostly gram (-), some gram (+), anthrax, yellow fever, salmonella, complicated UTI, respiratory, bone, joint, GI, and skin infections, bactericidal: alter DNA of bacteria, good oral absorption but reduced with anacids, Insomina, prolonged QT, ruptured tendon, tendonitis, pruritus, conculsions, urticaria, thrush, increased liver function, Anaerobic organisms, intraabdominal and gynercologic infections, protozoal infections, several drug interactions, treat C. Diff, 1st MRSA and other gram (+) infections; orally treats C. Diff and staphylococcus entercolitis, ototoxicity and nephrotoxiticity, hypotension, -monitor blood levels to ensure therapeutic levels and prevent toxicity, Hypotention, serotonine syndrome if taken with SSRI's (selective serotonin repute inhibitors --> cause serotonin build up and toxicity), Julie S Snyder, Linda Lilley, Shelly Collins. If a child who attends day care is exposed to pathogens and becomes ill, an antibiotic may be required. A. Abstract. Prevent Transmission A patient has acquired an infection while in the hospital. A patient who has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is receiving trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim]. The side effects of the usage of this drug are very rare. Which outcome should be included? Patricia has been prescribed doxycycline for a chlamydia infection. A. You could also consider a second-generation cephalosporin such as Ceclor or Ceftin. Sulfonamides, Tetracyclines, Fluoroquinolones Name 3 antibiotic classes that have an the adverse effect, photosensitivity? Rare, but may cause pseudomembranous colitis due to suprainfection 3. A nurse should recognize that a patient who is infected with HIV is at the highest risk to develop opportunistic infections during which clinical phase of HIV? A nurse should recognize that for maximum therapeutic effects against the influenza virus, oseltamivir [Tamiflu] should be taken when? When ceftriaxone is administered intravenously, it is most important for the nurse to avoid mixing it with what? It is most important for the nurse to assess a patient receiving a cephalosporin for the development of which manifestation of antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis (AAPMC)? Name the therapy. Superinfections (AAPC), Nephrotoxicity, Thromboplebitis . May cause maculopapular rash if Epstein bar present. Which drug may be prescribed to treat hypothyroidism? Learn more about this important issue by taking this quiz. Use Antimicrobials Wisely 4. Antibiotics kill both viruses and bacteria that cause illness. 22. 2. Antimicrobial pharmacology and its effect on prescribing is quite complex. Can inhibit P450 enzymes (but no specific drugs . Congenital heart defect with RESIDUAL DISEASE. At which time should the nurse obtain the patient's blood sample to determine the trough level? To monitor the patient for the most severe response to sulfonamide therapy, the nurse will assess for what?
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